[ol][*]Why is plow agriculture such as Barley (Alma 11:7) and Wheat (Mosiah 9:9) included in the Book of Mormon when it didn't exist during that time period? "There's a whole system of production of wheat and barley . . . It's a specialized production of food. You have to know something to make flax [the source of linen], and especially in tropical climates. Grapes and olives . . . all these are cultures that are highly developed and amount to systems, and so the Book of Mormon is saying that these systems existed here." (BYU anthropology professor, Dr. Raymond T. Matheny, August 25, 1984 Sunstone conference in Salt Lake City). Welch claims barley existed in the Book of Mormon based on one find in Phoenix, Arizona! Arizona is hardly the setting of the Book of Mormon.[*]Why aren't the foods known to ancient America such as chocolate, lima beans, squash, potatoes, tomatoes, manioc, etc. included in the Book of Mormon?[/ol]
I have more questions for you, if you could just answer these. Thanks.
Wow--those are some great questions! Moose, I have a strong feeling (call it intuition, not prophecy) that these questions won't be answered, and least not in any kind of straightforward manner.
Chad
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Why does the bible talk about corn? Corn was distinctly new when europeans landed in the americas.
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Why does the bible talk about corn? Corn was distinctly new when europeans landed in the americas.
It turns out that there is a very simple explanation why the word "corn" is found in the KJV Bible. The reason is that the word "corn" has existed in the English language for a very long time - even before Europeans discovered maize in the Americas. Were these people using their psychic powers to know what would be found in the future? No! Actually, like many other English words found in the KJV, the word "corn" had a different meaning in 1611 than it does now.The word "corn"used to refer to any grain, but especially wheat. When the early English settlers came to the Americas, they needed a word for the new grain that the native Americans ate. They called it "Indian corn," which translated into our common English, meant "Indian grain." The word "Indian" was eventually dropped, and maize is now called "corn." I checked my spanish bible and the spanish word for corn is never mentioned. Instead, the words "wheat" or "grain" are used.
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Why does the bible talk about corn? Corn was distinctly new when europeans landed in the americas.
It turns out that there is a very simple explanation why the word "corn" is found in the KJV Bible. The reason is that the word "corn" has existed in the English language for a very long time - even before Europeans discovered maize in the Americas. Were these people using their psychic powers to know what would be found in the future? No! Actually, like many other English words found in the KJV, the word "corn" had a different meaning in 1611 than it does now.The word "corn"used to refer to any grain, but especially wheat. When the early English settlers came to the Americas, they needed a word for the new grain that the native Americans ate. They called it "Indian corn," which translated into our common English, meant "Indian grain." The word "Indian" was eventually dropped, and maize is now called "corn." I checked my spanish bible and the spanish word for corn is never mentioned. Instead, the words "wheat" or "grain" are used.
Thanks Lizzie that leads us back to ......
[ol][*]
Quote:
[ol][*]Why is plow agriculture such as Barley (Alma 11:7) and Wheat (Mosiah 9:9) included in the Book of Mormon when it didn't exist during that time period? "There's a whole system of production of wheat and barley . . . It's a specialized production of food. You have to know something to make flax [the source of linen], and especially in tropical climates. Grapes and olives . . . all these are cultures that are highly developed and amount to systems, and so the Book of Mormon is saying that these systems existed here." (BYU anthropology professor, Dr. Raymond T. Matheny, August 25, 1984 Sunstone conference in Salt Lake City). Welch claims barley existed in the Book of Mormon based on one find in Phoenix, Arizona! Arizona is hardly the setting of the Book of Mormon.[*]Why aren't the foods known to ancient America such as chocolate, lima beans, squash, potatoes, tomatoes, manioc, etc. included in the Book of Mormon?[/ol]
As to "maize," that is a completely different story. When Columbus' expedition made landfall in 1492 they reached some island (the specific one still debatable) in the northern Antilles, near today's San Salvador. The island was populated by Tahino people, in whose language the name for their staple crop was "mahis." The name meant "source of life." Therefore, the Spanish, who took samples of this giant grain with them, propagated the Taino name for the plant wherever they distributed the crop, which was literally all over the known world (that is a separate story). That word has been transmutated phonetically into today's "maize" in English, and "maĆ*z" in Spanish.
Therefore, you can also now tell, the posturing that you see in dramatizations and popular advertisements where U. S. native americans are made to talk about "maize" is ludicrous. In each of the native languages of the New World, folks had their own word for the crop. One common theme that does run through many such names, however, is the idea of maize being the source, or sustainer of all life. In the three main languages of Mesoamerica, where maize was originally domesticated, maize was known as: Nahuatl (Aztec): Centli
Maya: Ixim
Zapotec: Rxoa
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There are 4 crops mentioned in the Book of Mormon.
[ul][*]Barley (Moses 7:22, 9:9, Alma 11:7, 15)[*]Figs (3 Nephi 14:16)[*]Grapes (2 Nephi 15:2, 4, 3 Nephi 14:16)[*]Wheat (Moses 9:9, 3 Nephi 18:18) [/ul]
There is no independent (non-Mormon) archeological evidence that Figs, Grapes, or Wheat existed in the area and time frame of the above references.
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Why does the bible talk about corn? Corn was distinctly new when europeans landed in the americas.
Why does the KJV Bible use the word "penny"? Obviously, a coin called "penny" didn't exist then. NIV and other modern translations correctly uses the word Denarius.
But Jusyboi, why be critical of the KJV?
It is the only translation that Mormons accept, isn't it?